The Gay Bible?
The
Queen James Bible, also known as the Gay Bible, is a new assault on biblical
orthodoxy and sexual purity. In it, the 1769 King James Bible has
been reproduced with only a very few select verses altered - the ones that
relate to homosexuality. Those verses are listed below and
analyzed. I hope you will see that the Queen James Bible is a perversion
of the original text and is the result of obvious prejudices against the original
Hebrew and Greek texts in order to make homosexual practices appear acceptable.
The
interlinear citations are taken from two sources. An interlinear is a
listing of the original languages that is reproduced from the most ancient and
best manuscripts with English translations under it. This way, the reader
can see for himself what the original says.
1.
Hebrew Interlinear Quotations are from van der Merwe,
Christo. The Lexham
Hebrew-English Interlinear Bible. Logos Bible Software, 2004.
2.
Greek Interlinear Quotations are from the Aland, B., Aland, K.,
Black, M., Martini, C. M., Metzger, B. M., & Wikgren, A. (1993,
c1979). The Greek
New Testament (4th ed.) (410). Federal Republic of Germany:
United Bible Societies.
The editors of the Gay Bible have stated the following:
"Most
English Bible translations that actively condemn homosexuality have based
themselves on the King James Version and have erroneously adapted its words to
support their own agenda. We wanted to return to the clean source and start
there."1
I'm
glad they acknowledge that most translations condemn homosexuality. But,
the annonymous editors of the QJV changed the translations, reinterpreted them,
and made them say the opposite of what the original languages state. It says on
page one of the QJV: "The Queen James Bible is based on The King
James Bible, edited to prevent homophobic misinterpretation." Edit
they did; translate they did not.
Are
they really going to maintain that basically all translators have gotten it
wrong throughout the centuries and that they, the annonymous editors2, got it right? It is easy to make
assertions while you hid behind anonymity. What are they afraid of if
their edits are the right ones?
Let's
take a look at the verses that deal with homosexuality but
comparing the KJV and the QJV and providing the original text for your
examination.
Verse
|
King
James Version
|
Queen
James Version
Green is altered text. Green with Red is addition of words not found in original text |
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"And
they called unto Lot, and said unto him, Where are the men which came in to
thee this night? Bring them out unto us, that we may know them." (KJV)
|
"And
they called unto Lot, and said unto him, Where are the men which came in to
thee this night? Bring them out unto us, that we may rape and
humiliate them." (QJV)
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As you can see, there is nothing in
the original text that says "rape and humiliate." The word
often translated as "rape" in English Bibles is the Hebrew yawdah which means
"to know": “know” 645 times, “known” 105 times, “knowledge”
19 times, “perceive” 18 times, “shew” 17 times, “tell” eight times, “wist”
seven times, “understand” seven times, “certainly” seven times, “acknowledge”
six times, “acquaintance” six times, “consider” six times, “declare” six
times, “teach” five times, and translated miscellaneously 85 times.3 So the word "know" is
there which can be translated as "rape," but "and
humiliate" is a complete fabrication.
·
The KJV never uses the word
"humiliate" in the O.T. It occurs once in Acts 8:33, but that is the Greek.
However, in the NASB "humiliate" occurs in the Old Testament (Judges 18:7; Ezra 9:5; Psa. 35:26, etc.). The word is kawlawm and
means "ashamed 12, confounded 11, shame 7, blush 3, hurt 2, reproach 2,
confusion 1"4
·
Adding the words "rape and
humiliate" is not justified and alters the meaning of the text.
Moses knew what he was writing under the inspiration of the Holy
Spirit. Essentially, the QJV editors are saying that Moses didn't get
it right and that they had to add words - which are not there - to
"correctly" get it to say what they think it needs to say.
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"Thou
shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is an abomination."
(KJV)
|
"Thou
shalt not lie with mankind as with womankind in the temple of Molech: it
is an abomination." (QJV)
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As you can see, "in the temple
of Molech" is not in the original text. Their modification is not
justified.
·
In the previous verse (Lev. 18:21) it says, "And thou shalt not
let any of thy seed pass through the
fire to Molech, neither shalt thou profane the name of thy
God: I am the
LORD." (KJV) The editors of the gay Bible have borrowed the topic
of Molech from the previous verse and inserted it into v. 22. But is
that justified? Not at all. In verse 20 it says "...thou
shalt not lie carnally with thy neighbour’s wife, to defile thyself with her
(Lev. 18:20)." Is this also only
referring to "in the temple of Molech"? Or the verse after 22
-- Lev. 18:23 says, "Neither shalt
thou lie with any beast to defile thyself therewith: neither shall any woman
stand before a beast to lie down thereto: it is confusion." Does
v. 23 condemn bestiality "in the temple of Molech" but it is okay
outside the temple? Why the selective inconsistency? The QJV
editors are not justified in their text modification. They altered it
to make it fit their sexual preference.
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"If
a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have
committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall
be upon them." (KJV)
|
"If
a man also lie with mankind in the temple of Molech, as he lieth with a
woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put
to death; their blood shall be upon them." (QJV)
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As you can see, there is nothing in
the text that says "in the temple of Molech."
·
Molech is mentioned earlier in Lev. 20:2,3,4,5. However, the topic then shifts
in Lev. 20:9 where Moses forbids cursing
your mother and father (Lev. 20:9), condems
adultery (Lev. 20:10), lying
with one's father's wife (Lev. 20:11), and lying with one's
daughter-in-law (Lev. 20:12).
Then after verse 13 it says not to marry a woman and her mother (Lev. 20:14), to not lie with animals (Lev. 20:15), etc.
·
If the Gay Bible editors want to
borrow a topic from several verses earlier and insert it into only one particular
verse, why just that one? Why do the editors of the Queen James Bible
feel justified in picking out only a single verse among a host of sexually
descriptive prohibitions and modify only that one verse? Why?
It's because that is the verse that disagrees with their pro-homosexual bias,
so they altered it. Perhaps later we might see a pro-bestiality Bible
that inserts the words "in the temple of Molech" into Lev. 20:15, just as the pro-homosexual
editors did in verse 13.
·
This is an obvious case of
prejudicial translation and alteration to suit a particular sexual behavior.
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"For this cause God
gave them up unto vile affections for even their women did change the
natural use into that which is against nature."5 (KJV)
|
"
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You will notice that there is a
significant alteration in this verse. The editors not only removed several
words (
·
"We know Paul was a Jew and
steeped in the purity tradition of Leviticus. Leviticus, as we know, is
intended to condemn ritual impurities associated with pagan idol worship. It
would not be unreasonable to assume a connection, especially since Romans 1:24 mentions “uncleanness.” We
know sex, both heterosexual and homosexual sex (not distinguished from each
other at the time), was an extremely major component of pagan ritual. Most
scholars (us included), agree that the sin in Romans 1 isn’t being gay
or lesbian or having gay sex. The sin was worshiping pagan idols instead of
God, as it was in Leviticus, as it is everywhere in the Bible. To reflect our
more examined understanding of what is 'natural' and to clarify the subject
matter of Romans 1, we have changed the verses to the following:"6
·
The QJV editors rewrote what Paul
actually said. Notice that "ritual lust" is not there in the
Greek. The inclusion of "ritual lust" alters the meaning of
the text to get it to say that that homosexuality is bad when it is practiced
in some sort of religious ritual, as temple prostitution. But, this is
not what it says.
·
The original KJV has no occurrence of
the word "ritual" in the entire Bible. It occurs in the NKJV
in Deut 23:17; 2 Kings 23:7; Ezek. 20:26; Hos. 4:14. But, none of these are in
the New Testament, so there is no justification for changing the text to
"ritual lust."
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"And
likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their
lust one toward another; men with menworking that which is
unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error
which was meet.
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"Men
with men working that which is paganand unseemly. For this
cause God gave the idolators up unto vile affections, receiving
in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet." (QJV)
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This verse is linked to the one
immediately above it so you can see the notes on its alteration imposed by
the editors.
·
They have added the words pagan,
idolators, and vile affections. That is not justified for this
text. Those words are just not there in the Greek.
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"Know
ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not
deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate,
nor abusers of themselves with mankind, (KJV)
|
"Know
ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not
deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor
morally weak, nor promiscuous, (QJV)
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Let's look at the Greek word that the
QJV renders as "morally weak." The Greek is ἀρσενοκοίται, arsenokoitai.
What does it mean?
·
Arsenokoitais comes from two
words, "ársēn (730),
a male, and koítē (2845),
a bed. A man who lies in bed with another male, a homosexual"7
·
"ἄρσην (arsēn), εν (en): adj.; ≡
DBLHebr 2351; Str 730—1. LN 79.102 human male"8
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"κοίτη (koitē), ης (ēs), ἡ (hē):
n.fem.; ≡ Str 2845—1. LN 6.108 bed (Lk 11:7+); 2. LN 23.62 sexual life, marriage
bed"9
·
ἀρσενοκοίτης, ου m: a male partner in
homosexual intercourse—‘homosexual.’10
·
"ἀρσενοκοίτης, ου, ὁ
arsenokoitēs male homosexual"11
·
But, on the queenjamesbible.com site,
the editors say the following about arsenokoitas.
·
"Greek as a language had
developed words for homosexuality, but none of those words were used in
arsenokoitais’s place. We changed the phrase “Abusers of themselves with
mankind” to “promiscuous” as one who is promiscuous risks their own health
and that of others, sexually and otherwise, as they disrespect their
God-given body."12.
·
If what they say is true, then let's
see some documentation that there were other words for 'homosexual'.
Just saying it
doesn't make it so. Also, it doesn't change the fact that the word
'arsenekoitas' says what it says as is documented above by several Greek
lexicons.
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"Nor
thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall
inherit the kingdom of God." (KJV)
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"Nor
thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall
inherit the kingdom of God." (QJV) (No Change)
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On queenjamesbible.com they included
this verse for context. I have, too. There is no change in the KJV text as
represented in the QJV.
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"For
whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers,
for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is
contrary to sound doctrine; (KJV)
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"For
whoremongers, for them that defile themselves,
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The QJV removes "with
mankind." Why? Because it implies teaching against
homosexuality. The word in the Greek is ἀρσενοκοίταις, arsenokoitas.
This word occurs only two times in the entire Bible, here and 1 Cor. 6:9. See above at 1 Cor. 6:9 for an analysis of the word
arsenokoitas - which the QJV mistranslates.
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"Even
as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves
over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an
example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire." (KJV)
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"Even
as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving
themselves over to fornication, and going after nonhuman flesh, are
set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire."
(QJV)
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The word "other" in Greek
is heteros.
It means "another of a different kind." This verse alteration
is possibly sound since the context of Sodom and Gomorrah is that the
sodomites sought to have relations with the angels who they thought were men.
·
Still, the point is that the men of
Sodom and Gomorrah did not know that the men were angels. They thought
they were men and wanted to have homosexual relations with them.
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1.http://queenjamesbible.com/gay-bible/
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2.I emailed them on 12/25/2012, via the contact
link on the qeenjamesbible.com website asking for a list of their editors.
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3.Strong, J. (1996). The exhaustive concordance of the
Bible : Showing every word of the text of the common English version of the
canonical books, and every occurence of each word in regular order. (electronic
ed.) (H3045). Ontario: Woodside Bible Fellowship.
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4..ibid.
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5.The printed book form of this verse is
identical to the text above. The website, queenjamesbible.com, has the word
"their" added to it so it reads, "...into that which is against
their nature."
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6.http://queenjamesbible.com/gay-bible/
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7.Zodhiates, Spiros. The Complete Word Study
Dictionary: New Testament. electronic ed. Chattanooga, TN: AMG
Publishers, 2000.
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8.Swanson, James. Dictionary of Biblical Languages
With Semantic Domains: Greek (New Testament). electronic ed. Oak
Harbor: Logos Research Systems, Inc., 1997.
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9..ibid.
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10.Louw, Johannes P., and Eugene Albert
Nida. Greek-English
Lexicon of the New Testament: Based on Semantic Domains. electronic
ed. of the 2nd edition. New York: United Bible Societies, 1996.
·
11.Balz, Horst Robert, and Gerhard
Schneider. Exegetical
Dictionary of the New Testament. Grand Rapids, Mich.: Eerdmans,
1990-.
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12.http://queenjamesbible.com/gay-bible/
